After a marriage has ended (either through nullity or divorce), and the parties are negotiating maintenance for the wife, I was wondering how the court normally decides maintenance in the event both parties have a job and some money, but the man makes more than the woman?
I'm not talking about division of assets they acquired together; it seems in most cases those are divided evenly. I'm talking about ongoing maintenance payments.
Let's say a husband is making 300k/yr. and the wife is making 100k/yr., would the wife still have reasonable grounds for asking for maintenance?
And in another case it is 150k/yr vs. 50k/yr., would that wife be more likely to get a higher percentage?
I guess the question really is...are the maintenance decisions generally based on proportion (i.e., straight percentages), or are there ceilings above which the court becomes less likely to award maintenance at all? Or is it really a case of "every situation is unique"?
I'm not talking about division of assets they acquired together; it seems in most cases those are divided evenly. I'm talking about ongoing maintenance payments.
Let's say a husband is making 300k/yr. and the wife is making 100k/yr., would the wife still have reasonable grounds for asking for maintenance?
And in another case it is 150k/yr vs. 50k/yr., would that wife be more likely to get a higher percentage?
I guess the question really is...are the maintenance decisions generally based on proportion (i.e., straight percentages), or are there ceilings above which the court becomes less likely to award maintenance at all? Or is it really a case of "every situation is unique"?