Dear all,
I am posting this to have a better understanding of the divorce procedures, whereby I hope some of you would be able to help.
A friend of mine has filed for divorce and initially both of them agreed to have 1 kid each. There will not be any any matrimonial home assets being fought over as the house belongs to him and his parents.
To make things worst, the guy is fickle minded. One minute he says he will sign the divorce papers, the next minute he can say not to sign. FYI, she will be going up to the lawyer's office to sign the papers. Whether he will sign a not, at this very point of time, I will not know.
Every night, she faces verbal abuse of what she has done in the past, to an extend it sounded so bad that she has vented her frustration to using her home phone to smash her head. That is when he will "cool" down and stop a while. When I mean a while, it really mean a while. 15 mins later, he can start his nonsense again. All these happened during the wee hours of the night which is say 11 plus.
He goes out gambling every night after 1am and will be home at around 5ish. When he is back, he will use a torch to shine into her face or turn on the room lights and pick a quarrel with her. Just a point to note that there are no physical abuse on her.
Question.
1) Can she apply for PPO based on the verbal abuse since there are no physical abuse? If yes, on what grounds can she apply for?
2) In an event when he does not sign the divorce papers and she has sign, I understand that the plantiff's (my friend) lawyer will counter sue him.
3) As she is filing for divorce, whats the possibility or how will then the word "seperation" comes in to place? To put it simply, if she signs and insist on a divorce and not a seperation, what will be the court decision? Any possibility on giving them a seperation instead?
4) I am aware that if one party signs and the other does not sign, they would have to wait 3 years before they are legally divorced. So does that mean that during these 3 years they are on seperated status?
I am posting this to have a better understanding of the divorce procedures, whereby I hope some of you would be able to help.
A friend of mine has filed for divorce and initially both of them agreed to have 1 kid each. There will not be any any matrimonial home assets being fought over as the house belongs to him and his parents.
To make things worst, the guy is fickle minded. One minute he says he will sign the divorce papers, the next minute he can say not to sign. FYI, she will be going up to the lawyer's office to sign the papers. Whether he will sign a not, at this very point of time, I will not know.
Every night, she faces verbal abuse of what she has done in the past, to an extend it sounded so bad that she has vented her frustration to using her home phone to smash her head. That is when he will "cool" down and stop a while. When I mean a while, it really mean a while. 15 mins later, he can start his nonsense again. All these happened during the wee hours of the night which is say 11 plus.
He goes out gambling every night after 1am and will be home at around 5ish. When he is back, he will use a torch to shine into her face or turn on the room lights and pick a quarrel with her. Just a point to note that there are no physical abuse on her.
Question.
1) Can she apply for PPO based on the verbal abuse since there are no physical abuse? If yes, on what grounds can she apply for?
2) In an event when he does not sign the divorce papers and she has sign, I understand that the plantiff's (my friend) lawyer will counter sue him.
3) As she is filing for divorce, whats the possibility or how will then the word "seperation" comes in to place? To put it simply, if she signs and insist on a divorce and not a seperation, what will be the court decision? Any possibility on giving them a seperation instead?
4) I am aware that if one party signs and the other does not sign, they would have to wait 3 years before they are legally divorced. So does that mean that during these 3 years they are on seperated status?